VALID CTAL_TM_001 TEST SIMS - QUIZ 2025 ISTQB ISTQB CERTIFIED TESTER ADVANCED LEVEL - TEST MANAGER REALISTIC AUTHENTIC EXAM HUB

Valid CTAL_TM_001 Test Sims - Quiz 2025 ISTQB ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager Realistic Authentic Exam Hub

Valid CTAL_TM_001 Test Sims - Quiz 2025 ISTQB ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager Realistic Authentic Exam Hub

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CTAL-TM Certification Path

6 months of experience in Software development/software testing.Successful completion of the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation level and a minimum of three years testing experience is recommended. The Intermediate Certificate may also be helpful but is not required.

ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager Sample Questions (Q75-Q80):

NEW QUESTION # 75
Which of the following is an advantage of specifying test conditions at a detailed level? [1]

  • A. Can be used to leverage use cases for acceptance testing
  • B. Saves time
  • C. Improves maintainability and reduces ownership costs for the testware
  • D. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps

Answer: D

Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Can be used to identify test coverage gaps. This is because test conditions are the items or events of a component or system that will be verified by one or more test cases. Specifying test conditions at a detailed level can help to identify test coverage gaps, which are the areas or aspects of the component or system that are not covered by the test conditions or test cases. By identifying test coverage gaps, the test team can ensure that the testing is complete and consistent with the test objectives and scope. Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association References: Certified Tester Advanced Level Test Manager (CTAL-TM) - ISTQB not-for-profit association, ISTQB Test Manager Certification - ISTQB Exams Worldwide - ISTQB Official Registration, Test Conditions - ISTQB not-for-profit association


NEW QUESTION # 76
Which of the following are primary activities in conducting product risk analysis? [1]

  • A. Risk management, risk assessment
  • B. Risk identification, risk testing
  • C. Risk testing, risk management
  • D. Risk identification, risk assessment

Answer: D

Explanation:
Product risk analysis is the process of identifying and assessing the product risks that may affect the quality or functionality of the software under test1. Product risk analysis involves two primary activities: risk identification and risk assessment. Risk identification is the activity of finding, naming, and describing the risks that might affect the software under test2. Risk assessment is the activity of estimating the impact and probability of occurrence (likelihood) of the identified risks, and prioritizing them based on these factors3.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer. Option A is incorrect because risk testing and risk management are not primary activities of product risk analysis, but rather activities that follow or use the results of product risk analysis. Risk testing is the activity of designing, implementing, and executing tests based on the product risk levels to reduce the level of product risks and inform stakeholders of their status4. Risk management is the activity of planning, monitoring, and controlling the risks and the risk mitigation actions in the software project5. Option C is incorrect because risk identification and risk testing are not primary activities of product risk analysis, but rather activities that are part of product risk analysis and risk-based testing respectively. Option D is incorrect because risk management and risk assessment are not primary activities of product risk analysis, but rather activities that are part of risk management and product risk analysis respectively. References: 1: ISTQB Glossary, Product Risk Analysis 2: ISTQB Glossary, Risk Identification 3:
ISTQB Glossary, Risk Assessment 4: ISTQB Glossary, Risk-Based Testing 5: ISTQB Glossary, Risk Management : Product Risk Analysis (PRA) | TMap : Risk-Based Testing | ISTQB Glossary : Risk Analysis | ISTQB Glossary


NEW QUESTION # 77
The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits

  • A. The bidder's project strategy shows that the data content of all the test environments conforms to EU standards.
  • B. The bidder's test plan shows that the application will be delivered for acceptance in six months time.
  • C. The bidder's test policy should enforce that incident management fully conforms to IEEE 1044.
  • D. The bidder's project test plan depicts a phased implementation with later delivery dates to be confirmed and states that test deliverables will be developed using IEEE 829 as a guide.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:


NEW QUESTION # 78
You have assembled the following cost of quality numbers 1 000 defects were found prior to release and 100 were found after.

Given this information what should you conclude?

  • A. The cost of testing is high and could probably be lowered by spending more money on defect prevention
  • B. More effort should be put on appraisal to help lower the cost of quality
  • C. The cost of testing is just right and is justified by the numbers
  • D. More testing was needed before the production release because the defect detection percentage (DDP) was below 90%

Answer: A

Explanation:
Cost of Quality Analysis:
The given table lists costs for defect prevention, appraisal, internal failure, and external failure.
Defect prevention cost is $50,000, while costs for appraisal, internal failures, and external failures are $250,000, $200,000, and $200,000, respectively.
The combined cost of internal and external failures is significantly high compared to defect prevention costs.
Defect Detection and Prevention (DDP):
DDP measures the effectiveness of defect prevention activities and early detection mechanisms.
In this case, 1,000 defects were caught before release (appraisal) and 100 defects escaped to production.
DDP = (Defects found before release / Total defects) = 1000 / (1000 + 100) = 90.91%.
While this DDP is relatively high, the costs of appraisal and failures indicate that prevention strategies need more investment.
Key Cost Drivers:
High internal and external failure costs indicate inefficiencies in earlier stages of quality assurance.
Shifting investments from appraisal and failure costs towards defect prevention would reduce the overall cost of quality.
Evaluating Options:
Option A ("More testing needed because DDP < 90%") is invalid since DDP is above 90%.
Option C ("The cost of testing is justified") does not address the imbalance between high failure costs and low prevention spending.
Option D ("More effort on appraisal") contradicts the cost-benefit focus of investing in prevention.
Option B is correct because enhancing defect prevention strategies will reduce downstream costs.
Reference and Syllabus Alignment:
This conclusion aligns with the ISTQB Advanced Test Management syllabus section on "Cost of Quality" and strategies to optimize testing investments. Specifically, prevention is emphasized as more cost-effective than appraisal and failure management.


NEW QUESTION # 79
You have recently implemented a new defect management process which now includes a defect triage committee whose job is to review all new defects. The process is shown in the following diagram:

b. The total number of defects rejected as not a problem following investigation by the product author c. The number of defects returned to the defect author, expressed as a percentage of all defects raised d. The total number of defects that failed re-test more than once e. The total number of defects closed by the defect triage committee SELECT ONE OPTION

  • A. a and b.
  • B. b and d.
  • C. a and e.
  • D. c and d.

Answer: C


NEW QUESTION # 80
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